Marriage in the United States shall consist only of the union of a man and a woman.
The second sentence is:
Neither this constitution or the constitution of any state, nor state or federal law, shall be construed to require that marital status or the legal incidents thereof be conferred upon unmarried couples or groups.
Note that the second sentence does not restrict itself to same sex marriages. Is there any reason why the second sentence would not overturn previous Supreme Court rulings on the issue of marriage equality?
Under what possible reading could this fail to overturn, for example Loving v Virginia?
To the extent that the decision relied on the US Constitution, State Constitutions, State laws, or Federal laws, would the decision not be null and void?
It would seem to me that states would be well within their rights to reintroduce anti-miscegination laws.