Can someone, preferable, Toussaint or MBM, tell me the demarcation point of exploitation, in relation to the difference between worker pay and compensation and corporate profits and or executive pay? I ask this question in tangent with my post in regards to profits and thermodynamics.
Everyone agrees that slavery was exploitation, but was it exploitation because the people were denied their freedom or was it exploitation because of the difference between worker pay and the owner's profit/pay. I am sure that many will say BOTH, but in truth, the denial of freedom was only undertaken to enforce the wage and profit gaps between workers and owners. People would not voluntarily have done that work for no pay, thus their freedom of choices had to be denied.
Today, people volunteer to be exploited, because society or curcumstance has restricted their viable options, which in turns restricts their degree of freedom, which leads them to accepting their exploitation, as a means of survival.