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Reply to "The Word ["Amen"]"

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Originally posted by Melesi:
But that is beside the point.
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How wxactly, I could have sworn that 'Amen' was the topic at hand.

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The Hebrew word "amen" does not relate to divinity. It is a common word, used in everyday speech, preserved in such conversations and teachings as "amen, amen, I say to you that..." and he wasn't speaking to or of a god or of anything divine.


It is used commonly, not reserved for cultic speech.


You have no idea how funny what you just said is. Look up the work 'cult' and others may get it...I doubt you will. BTW I could have sworn all Hebrew words have a mystic meaning, that the whole language has numerical corrolations ect. The entire speach is 'divine' to people that read Hebrew. Didn't your Jewish studies inform you of that melesi?

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The oldest use that we know of of a word is not necessarily the source. One could ask, for example, where the Egyptians got it. Unfortunately, that seems to be a fruitless search, for the records are not extant, and probably could not be. So we would have to be careful in saying that it is the source. It could be, but we do not know.


Actually, the Egyptians say in many documents that they recieved their knowledge from 'up' the Nile from it's sounrce, a.k.a. the interior of Africa...Upper Egypt being "south" in our upside down world view. The Neteru/Netcher 'Bes' is the anthropomorphic phenotye made devine of the Twa people(Pygmies) that the Kemetic (Egyptians) scribes gave praise to as the source of their knowledge. This is documented in the Medu Neteru...a book you obviousely skipped. These people are found at the source of the Nile and in the Congo Basin. African either way it goes. I'm no tribalist/micronationalist.

Thanks for once again proving your lack of knowledge about ancient KMTic texts.

Why do you insist on speaking on things outside the Bible when you know you haven't studied them?

Let's infuse some logic here. The Hebrews of the Bible dwelt in KMT(Egypt) for how long by their own recoeds? And didn't have a religion mentioned in their own Holy Book until contact with Egypt. The same people(Egyptians) that had been worshipping one of the manifestations of God known as Amen. Moses(Moshe) was "learned in all the ways of Egypt" but some how, they just "happen" to use the same word and there is no connection.

Even thought there are examples aplenty of how the Helio Biblio(Sun Book) has plagerized portions of scripture directly from the papyrus of ani? Which Moses and 'his' people were exposed to on a daily basis during most of their 'Old Testament' stay in Egypt. I have the texts if you want to read them.

I have a bridge in Brooklyn to sell you.

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There are false etymologies aplenty, based on exactly the kind of thinking that this amen/Amen supposition has in it. "Semite" does not come from the Latin "semi" but form the Hebrew "Shem." Greek has two words spelled identically that mean two different things--"thumos" is "anger," and "thumos" is "lentil." The only difference is the accent. We have words that mean the opposite of themselves: "cleave" can mean to "cut in two" or "cling together as one."


So be careful when tracing the etymology of a word. If there is no relation between two similar-looking words in meaning, then it's most likely that there is no relation between them at all. Amen in Egyptian was a god. Amen in Hebrew is a common word meaning "absolutely," or "truly," or even "me, too," plus the meanings of security and firmness.


Now that's beside the point.

You have lost all credibility when you suggested Yeshua(Jesus) could have possibly been Germanic in another thread.

Awaiting another weak X-tian apologetic response...
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