Nmaginate - in light of the recent article you posted where the argument for reparations was predicated more on a general "wrong" done slaves than slavery itself, this post begs the question if Native Americans have received _enough_ pay back for what they have suffered. Was the "wrong" they suffered sufficiently compensated by America?
BTW - the two paragraphs in the original post are completely independent questions. It asks if what Native Americans recieved is/can be considered a reparation (as opposed to merely a payment for land, a negotiated settlement, etc.). Secondly, it asks if whatever they recieved was actually adequate.